And you have FAILED American Civics 101! There is NO absolute Constitutional 'Right' for any American to vote in ANY election. Section 2 of the 14th Amendment, you know, the part you conveniently left out, specifically details what will happen if the States DO elect to deny anyone the 'right' of voting, specifically that the number of persons counted toward their representation in Congress shall be reduced by the number of those denied the 'right' of voting.
The 14th Amendment clearly states that there is no 'Right' to vote, and that it is acknowledged in the Constitution, that it is a privilege, reserved to the states, and that the states may decide for themselves whom they will allow to vote in their state. All the 14th, 15th, 19th, and 26th Amendment do is prevent a State from denying anyone the ability to vote based on race, sex, or for being under 18 years of age, BUT if any State were to decide tomorrow morning that in order to vote in that State that you had to be a property owner, or possess a PhD, there's nothing in the Constitution that can prevent them from doing so.
What you have failed to understand is that a 'right' that can be abridged is not a 'right' at all, but merely a privilege, and in this case the circumstances under which the 'right' of voting may be abridged is very clearly laid out. The very fact that it describes what will happen should a state decide to deny or abridge the 'right' to vote creates an "if-then" situation, that exists nowhere as it relates to any of our true Rights. Where is the "if-then" as it relates to the Right of Freedom of the Press? Where is the "if-then" as it relates to the Freedom of Religion? Where is the "if-then" as it relates to the Freedom of Speech? There are none, therefore they are Rights, and not privileges, but this does not apply to the 'right' to vote.
