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Paraphrased: ...all have sinned and come short of the glory of God...  Including the Hebrews.  Why then were their sins overlooked and the sins of the male babies of the Midianites were not?  What sin had those babies committed?  Does who wrote the story (Hebrews or Midianites) have any bearing on the justification?


Taken in the context of the time where it was not adultery or rape to have a child with your wife's handmaiden, and the context of "...take all females who have not known man for yourselvels..."  Just what do you think that they were going to do with them if it was not for sexual purposes?  Of course, the Hebrews would not describe it as rape, they wrote the story and thou shall not commit adultery had not been invented yet.


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