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Nope. You have a serious problem interpreting the meaning of infinity as regards to physical phenomena. But you have no problem whatsoever, replying indefinitely after being squarely disproven.




LOL at yourself. You obviously failed (as always) to appreciate the conundrum I am presenting here.


For example - calculus has its roots as early as 1800 BC. Its principles were used extensively by the ancient greeks, chinese and indians. Einstein's relativity or newton's mechanics were never even dreamed of at its conception. But the laws formulated by these two couldn't have been explained without calculus, no?


The most glaring I can think of relates to maxwell's equations of elastic, electrical, magnetic and gravitational force. Prior to maxwell, nobody thought that there was a fundamental relationship between these forces. And yet, a mere glance at the equations would tell you that there is a distinct and unmistakable symmetry that makes these forces fundamentally the same.


As of today, THERE ARE NO THEORETICAL OR APPLIED BRANCH OF PHYSICS THAT DOES NOT USE CALCULUS. And that is just one branch of mathematics applying in only one branch of the natural sciences. In all cases, the validity of any proposed scientific law depends on its conformity with a mathematical model. The uncanny way by which mathematics predicts the behavior of physical phenomena we are only beginning to understand today - what accounts for it, hmmm?


Now, unless you are suggesting that ancient egyptians developed calculus for scientific purposes today, I'd say you don't know what you're talking about. So why don't you run along and let the intellectuals do a bit of discussion in peace, hmmm?


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