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If someone violates the rights of another, by initiating the use of force or perpetrating fraud, then the violator has already yielded his own rights. So I'm not talking about people who have committed crimes, sorry I wasn't specific about that in the question.Is a majority of voters ever justified in denying rights to an individual who has violated the rights of no one?
If someone violates the rights of another, by initiating the use of force or perpetrating fraud, then the violator has already yielded his own rights. So I'm not talking about people who have committed crimes, sorry I wasn't specific about that in the question.
Is a majority of voters ever justified in denying rights to an individual who has violated the rights of no one?
