No "Nation of Israel" existed between about 67 CE and 1948. The area was called Palestine by everyone in the period between those dates. You do not know shit, only Israeli propaganda.
There was no nation of Palestine before 1988.
The Palestinians were told by the Arab countries - Lebanon, Egypt, Syria , Jordan and Iraq- that they should seek temporary shelter and leave their homes. Many did, and it turned out that the armies of these countries were incompetent, and when they were defeated, the Israelis refused to allow then to return to their homes. Other Palestinians were driven out of a number of villages by the Israelis. They do not oppose Jews because they are anti semitic, they only want their land back.
Squatters on the land of Israel do not have property rights.
Since there was never a nation of Palestine for the entire first 6,000 years of human civilization, the Jews have prior claims to the land of Judea, having owned and occupied the land from around 4,000 years ago. Lefties who claim no immigrant to America in the last 400 years can own property supposedly belonging to the prior inhabitants then lefties will also have to admit that the newly formed Palestinian people have no property rights in Judea.
It helped when the pope did a deal with Hitler, who btw was a catholic.
In spite of what rogue Christians, Arabs, Muslims, and other God-rejecting people did, God-fearing Christians did not support Hitler.
Owning property in a state is not the same thing as the sovereignty of a state. Neither Palestinians nor Jews has sovereignty between 70 CE an 1947. The UN divided the territory and the Israelis REFUSED to respect the UN boundaries.
You got some details turned upside down, backwards, and inside out.
Not every pretender claiming to represent God is a real Christian.
In most certainly do NOT!
What nation was sovereign over what part of Palestine as divided in 1948?
