Whatever creator you believe in.
Should I take that as meaning you have no other explanation for the existence of your rights?
The Declaration of Independence states clearly that our rights come from our creator (not from the government.)
Haven't you pointed out before that the Constitution, and not the Declaration, is the law of the land?
There were rational arguments behind every statement in both documents. Phrases like, "endowed by their creator with certain unalienable rights", actually had a rational argument to explain why the conclusion of that argument should be self-evident. Do you know what those arguments were or are you merely pointing to words on paper?
Government derives its power from the consent of the governed, just as any other power of government.
Consent for the power to do what? Only those specific items outlined in article one section eight of the constitution , or everything that's been piled on top of it?
The governed think that they should be protected from reckless endangerment, or we would not have laws against the sorts of behaviors I've been describing.
So far you have yet to offer an example of someone who is not using force, is not violating the rights of anyone, but deserves to be punished for committing a crime.
Using the very vague term of "reckless endangerment" and then offering unrealistic examples of why such laws should exist, ignoring requests to offer an example that could meet the parameters laid out, and pointing to words on paper while not offering any of the substance behind those words... is that winning?
The police have the authority to use force to stop people from endangering the public.
I agree, but only to the extent that any individual would also be allowed to intervene. Allowing any authority the legal right to violate the rights of people who are not using force, and are not violating the rights of others, is unacceptable.
I suppose you could call that an extension of the right to self defense.
Allowing any authority the legal right to violate the rights of people who are not using force, and are not violating the rights of others, sounds more like a mutation, rather than extension, of the individual right of self defense.
I can defend myself, or, if the cops are handy, they can do it.
According to the laws you support, the man in the example I gave was using no force, was not violating the rights of anyone, and yet was still found guilty of a committing a crime. So where in your right of self defense are you authorized to violate the rights of others? Is there a "just in case" clause? Is there a "better safe than sorry" clause?
Your perceived "right" to violate the rights of others must have come from somewhere... After all, government's power is merely an extension of your own individual rights, or is it?
Oh, then you do believe that endangering lives and property is a violation of rights. Your previous posts would lead us to believe the opposite.
You must be joking... Rights can only be violated through the use of force or fraud and, so far, you have not offered a single example of someone who is not using force, and not violating the rights of anyone, but someone you still believe poses an imminent threat.
The man in your example was not driving drunk. If it is illegal to be in a vehicle under the influence, then that is not a law that protects our rights, but simply makes it easier to arrest drunks on the highway.
So that makes it OK? ...It's better that we violate this mans rights before he has a chance to violate the rights of others...I mean, "just in case", "better safe than sorry", can't be "too" careful when the safety of the public is at stake, right?
It is unlikely in the extreme that anyone would be arrested for being in their own car in their own driveway, drunk or not. The man in your example was jeopardizing no one, and would most likely be found innocent in court.
My example is based on a true story, he was found guilty.
Your question about use of force is not clear.
What is unclear about it? You claimed an individual did not have to use force in order to violate the rights of others... He was not using force, he was not violating the rights of anyone, and yet was found guilty of a crime.
If someone is firing a weapon in a crowded place, for example, is he the one using force, or are you referring to the arresting officers using force to stop him?
The man in your example was not on his property, if he did not have permission from the owner of that property to be there and engage in such activity, then he was trespassing and violating the rights of the owner.
Have you never fired a 30.06? Even if the bullet didn't strike any people or property, anyone within 10-15 yards, without proper ear protection, would have their rights violated with the very first shot... and then there are the people in front of the muzzle, in the path of the bullet, he was violating their rights as well.
In such an example, the police should arrest the man for trespassing before he fires. If they arrest him after he fires, then he has violated the rights of many more people and should be held accountable.